Wednesday, September 30, 2015

ECO 365 Final Exam (Latest) 30/30


ECO 365 Final Exam (Latest) 30/30

1). The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:    
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.      
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.          
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds.         
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
2). Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:           
Economies of scope
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scale
3). Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year.  Based on this information, we can best conclude that:  
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
the law of demand is invalid.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
 4). A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:         
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
5). The best example of positive externality is:         
Alcoholic beverages
Pollution
Education
Roller coaster rides
6). The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:  
supply
profit maximization
opportunity cost
demand
7). A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
8). Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
9). Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Pareto externality
Positive externality
Negative externality
Normative externality
10). Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:          
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
11). A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:          
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12). Graphically, a change in price causes:
the demand curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
13). In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
14). In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
15). The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Never declines
Always declines
Is constant
Eventually declines
16). Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
supply curve shifting to the right.
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
17). Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
 18). Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
19). At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Diminishing marginal product
Decreasing returns to scale
Constant returns to scale
Increasing returns to scale
20). There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors.  There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day.  The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
A pure monopoly.
An oligopoly.
 21). Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share.  From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
22). For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Equals the marginal revenue.
23). When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
24). Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
The law of diminishing marginal utility
25). Price elasticity of demand is the:
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
26). Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
27). Strategic decision making is most important in: 
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
28). Cartels are organizations that:
Encourage price wars.
Keep markets contestable.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
29). Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Not related because they are taught separately.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
30). Microeconomics is the study of:
a firm’s pricing policies
inflation
unemployment
business cycles

LDR 531 FINAL EXAM 2015 (LATEST)


LDR 531 FINAL EXAM 2015 (LATEST)

Question
1. Job dissatisfaction and antagonistic relationships with coworkers predict a variety of behaviors organizations find undesirable, including unionization attempts, substance abuse, undue socializing, and tardiness. These behaviors are indicators of a broader syndrome called
Positivity offset.
Employee withdrawal.
Cognitive dissonance.
Rotten apple syndrome.
2. Organizational momentum ________________.
is not promoted by stability within the organization
can benefit or inhibit an organization
is always an advantage in seeking organizational change
increases with the implementation of new programs
3. Some studies indicate the best approach for transformational change may have the chief executive officer create an atmosphere for change
And establish a reward system.
But carefully set limits for the program.
But let others decide how to initiate change.
And begin establishing a vision.
4. Which of the following actions best represents Kelly’s high job involvement?
Kelly wants to continue working for the organization because many of her college friends are working there.
Kelly actively takes part in team activities and proactively takes up additional job responsibilities.
Kelly always complains about her work to her colleagues.
Kelly shares the organization’s vision of supporting renewable energy.
5. The concept that some leadership attributes will work in some situations but not in others can be described by the
Contingency theory.
Tactical theory.
Leadership effectiveness theory.
Behavioral theory.
6. You manage a department of four employees. You have identified that Joe has a high need for achievement. Mary has a high need for power, and Tim has a high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation.
Which of these four employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on vacation?
Mary
Tim
Joe
Sarah
7. In order to make their firm a learning organization, managers should
Increase the degree of departmentalization.
Reinforce interdependence and reduce boundaries.
Avoid the use of cross-functional teams.
Penalize mistakes.
8. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics?
Individuals from collectivist cultures are typically more likely to use soft tactics that reflect personal power.
The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics.
All tactics are equally effective with regard to upward influence. The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics.
Soft tactics are less effective than hard tactics when used individually.
9. Central to managing a successful organizational strategy implementation are/is
Tracking progress.
Formal models of implementation.
Coalition management.
Competitive teams.
10. Which of the following is the first step in the negotiation process?
Preparation and planning
Bargaining and problem solving
Definition of ground rules
Clarification and justification
11. ________ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests.
Politicking
Sabotage
Illegitimate political behavior
Legitimate political behavior
12. The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is
Its top management.
Its environment.
The country in which the organization operates.
Its founders.
13. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about differences between men and women in relation to emotional reactions?
Women express anger more frequently than men.
Men experience emotions more intensely than women.
Women tend to hold onto emotions longer than men.
Men display positive emotions more frequently than women.
14. Which of the following is a desirable strategy for managers aiming to reduce the negative consequences of rumors?
Refusing to comment on issues that appear to be controversial and unfair
Encouraging employees to communicate their concerns and suggestions
Creating a more informal communication environment at the workplace
Initiating disciplinary action against the employee who started the rumor
15. Adoration of a charismatic leader by followers can lead to
Limiting suggestions of fixes and improvements.
A competitive work environment.
Difficulty in developing a successor.
Greater understanding of the company mission.
16. A leadership theory that describes leadership functions applicable to some situations but not others is called
Descriptive.
Universal.
Contingency.
Prescriptive.
17. Dortix is a manufacturing company. At the end of every quarter, the total production of each department is calculated, compared with the predetermined targets, and the rewards for each set of divisional employees is determined this way. Dortix uses a ________ plan to incentivize its employees.
gainsharing
modular
profit-sharing
core-plus
18. The degree to which a turbulent environment impacts operations within an organization is known as
Capacity.
Complexity.
Volatility.
Organic.
19. Determining if a strategy will be effective within its respective business environment and still be competitive could be determined by completing a(n) ________ test.
advantage
feasibility
consonance
consistency
20. According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which
A job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.
A job has an impact on the lives or work of other people.
A job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion.
A job generates direct and clear information about performance.
21. Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?
Cliques
Status
Norms
Goals
22. During an annual review, Michel Godfrey made the following assertion: “When I look at myself and my performance, I see that what I have achieved is outstanding and something no one in the organization has the capacity to undertake. Surprisingly, it has not won me the admiration of my colleagues like it should have. I also believe that I do not just deserve a raise, but need one, since without me, let’s face it, the place would simply fall apart.” Which of the following personality traits best describes Michel’s personality?
Minimalism
Stoicism
Narcissism
Monasticism
23. Which of the following dimensions of the Big Five Model indicates a person’s ability to withstand stress?
Emotional stability
Agreeableness
Openness to experience
Extroversion
24. The best leadership theories to describe and explain effective leadership in teams with interactive members are
Group theories.
Dyadic theories.
Multi-level theories.
Integrated theories.
25. Which of the following is true of the baby boomer generation?
They are more questioning and entrepreneurial than the other generations.
They lead lives shaped mainly by globalization.
They give high importance to achievement and material success.
They give the highest importance to flexibility and life options.
26. Low-context cultures primarily rely on ________ in communicating with others.
formal titles
status differences
spoken and written words
situational cues
27. Pragmatic leaders
Appeal to emotions.
Articulate a vision of confidence.
Have expertise and commitment.
Appeal to shared values.
28. ________ refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.
Self-determination
Emotional contagion
Self-efficacy
Affect intensity
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding a matrix structure?
It avoids duplication of activities.
It reduces ambiguity about who reports to whom.
It cannot achieve economies of scale.
It breaks the unity-of-command concept.
30. Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager to minimize groupthink?
Asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
Preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
Seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions
Encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity king input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

SAINT ACC303/ACC303 QUIZ 5 (A+++++ GUARANTEE)


SAINT ACC303/ACC303 QUIZ 5 (A+++++ GUARANTEE)

Question 1.1. Almost all computer criminals can be described as: (Points : 4)
professional criminals.
technical hackers possessing strong computer skills.
white collar professional criminals.
amateurs who describe themselves as relatively honest.
Question 2. 2. Logical access to the computer system would be best controlled by: (Points : 4)
intrusion alarm systems.
complex operating systems.
restrictions on physical access to online terminals.
password codes.
Question 3. 3. Hacking involves: (Points : 4)
stealing carbons of credit cards.
destroying computer hardware.
gaining illegal entry to computer files from remote locations.
inserting a logic bomb in a computer program
Question 4. 4. An ideal control is: (Points : 4)
a control procedure that reduces to practically zero the risk of an error or an irregularity taking place and not being detected.
a control procedure that is anticipated to have the lowest possible cost in relation to its benefits.
a control procedure that should always be implemented into a company’s system due to the efficiency and effectiveness that will result from its implementation.
a control procedure that is always cost effective.
Question 5. 5. Which of the following statements is true? (Points : 4)
The COSO report failed to define internal control.
The COSO report emphasized that an internal control system is a tool of management.
SAS 78 rejected the definition of internal control provided in the COSO report.
COBIT concluded that a company’s management is not responsible for establishing and monitoring a company’s internal control system.
Question 6. 6.Regarding the internal audit function, which of the following statements is true? (Points : 4)
Since many internal auditors have accounting backgrounds, the internal audit function should ideally be included within a company’s accounting subsystem.
It is not proper for internal auditors to perform a fraud investigation within any part of their company’s system.
Because of the independence of external auditors, they should never accept previous work of evaluating controls performed by a company’s internal auditors.
Within a company’s system, it is preferable to establish the internal audit function as a separate subsystem.
Question 7. 7.An approach used by many companies to reduce the risk of loss caused by the theft of assets by employees is to: (Points : 4)
utilize polygraphs.
acquire arbitrage loss protection.
acquire fidelity bond coverage.
institute punitive management.
Question 8. 8.Which of the following is not a processing control? (Points : 4)
Record counts
Control totals
Hash totals
Check digits
Question 9. 9. Which of these is an acronym for computer crime legislation? (Points : 4)
ACL
BART
CFAA
DDoS
Question 10. 10. At present, we think that computer crime is: (Points : 4)
falling.
random.
rising.
flat.

REL 133 Week 5 Learning Team Assignment Contemporary Issues in Eastern Religions

REL 133 Week 5 Learning Team Assignment Contemporary Issues in Eastern Religions

Choose one of the religions discussed in this course. Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that addresses the following questions: What are common characteristics the assigned religion shares with the others? How is this religion responding to challenges in the modern world? What has changed about the roles of women in the religion over time? Cite at least five references in addition to the textbook.

REL 133 Week 5 Learning Team Assignment Contemporary Issues in Eastern Religions

Tuesday, September 29, 2015

Strayer acc403 week 8 quiz


Strayer acc403 week 8 quiz

Question 1
2 out of 2 points
In an IT system, automated equipment controls or hardware controls are designed to:
Question 2
2 out of 2 points
A database management system:
Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Old and new systems operating simultaneously in all locations is a test approach known as:
Question 4
2 out of 2 points
Security controls should require that users enter a(n) ________ before being allowed access to software and other related data files.
Question 5
2 out of 2 points
________ is not a risk specific to the IT environments.
Question 6
2 out of 2 points
Controls that are designed for each software application and are intended to help a company satisfy the transaction-related audit objectives are:
Question 7
2 out of 2 points
One of the unique risks of protecting hardware and data is:
Question 8
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following computer-assisted auditing techniques inserts an audit module in the client’s application system to identify specific types of transactions?
Question 9
2 out of 2 points
The most important output control is:
Question 10
2 out of 2 points
An example of a physical control is:
Question 11
2 out of 2 points
The auditor’s objective in determining whether the client’s automated controls can correctly handle valid and invalid transactions as they arise is accomplished through the:
Question 12
2 out of 2 points
Programmers should be allowed access to:
Question 13
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following controls prevent and detect errors while transaction data are processed?
Question 14
2 out of 2 points
The approach to auditing where the auditor does not test automated controls to reduce assessed control risk is called:
Question 15
2 out of 2 points
Output controls need to be designed for which of the following data integrity objectives?
Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following procedures would most likely be performed in response to the auditor’s assessment of the risk of monetary misstatements in the financial statements?
Question 17
2 out of 2 points
An exception or deficiency found in a test of controls:
Question 18
2 out of 2 points
The document that details the specific audit procedures for each type of test is the:
Question 19
2 out of 2 points
In order to promote audit efficiency the auditor considers cost in selecting audit tests to perform. Which of the following audit tests would be the most costly?
Question 20
2 out of 2 points
Management implements internal controls to ensure that all required footnote disclosures are accurate. Auditors tests those controls to provide evidence supporting the ________ presentation.
Question 21
2 out of 2 points
Many auditors perform extensive analytical procedures on audits because:
Question 22
2 out of 2 points
An increased extent of tests of controls is most likely to occur when:
Question 23
2 out of 2 points
The purpose of tests of controls is to provide reasonable assurance that the:
Question 24
2 out of 2 points
A system walkthrough is primarily used to help the auditor:
Question 25
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following tests commonly occur together?
Question 26
2 out of 2 points
In the context of an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that:
Question 27
2 out of 2 points
Risk assessment procedures are performed by auditors during an audit in order to:
Question 28
2 out of 2 points
Collectively, procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including internal controls, represent the auditor’s:
Question 29
2 out of 2 points
You are auditing Rodgers and Company. After performing substantive analytical procedures you conclude that, for the accounts tested, the client’s balance appears reasonable. This may indicate that:
Question 30
2 out of 2 points
 
Which of the following audit tests is usually the least costly to perform?

Strayer ACC403 week 7 quiz


Strayer ACC403 week 7 quiz

Question 1
Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of:
Answer
authorization, execution, and payment.
authorization, recording, and custody.
custody, execution, and reporting.
authorization, payment, and recording.
Question 2
Management must disclose material weaknesses in internal control in its audit report:
Answer
whenever the weakness is deemed significant to a single class of transactions.
whenever the weakness is significant to overall financial reporting objectives.
if the weakness exists at the end of the year.
only if the auditor identifies the weakness as significant.
Question 3
An act of two or more employees to steal assets and cover their theft by misstating the accounting records would be referred to as:
Answer
collusion.
a material weakness.
a control deficiency.
a significant deficiency.
Question 4
Reasonable assurance allows for:
Answer
low likelihood that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal controls.
no likelihood that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal control.
moderate likelihood that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal control.
high likelihood that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected by internal control.
Question 5
Which of the following components of the control environment define the existing lines of responsibility and authority?
Answer
Organizational structure
Management philosophy and operating style
Human resource policies and practices
Management integrity and ethical values
Question 6
Which of the following is not one of the three primary objectives of effective internal control?
Answer
Reliability of financial reporting
Efficiency and effectiveness of operations
Compliance with laws and regulations
Assurance of elimination of business risk
Question 7
When assessing whether the financial statements are auditable, the auditor must consider:
Answer
that the integrity of management and the adequacy of accounting records are the two primary factors determining auditability.
that the integrity of management and the adequacy of risk management are the two primary factors determining auditability.
that if all of the transaction information is available only in electronic form without a visible audit trail, the company cannot be audited.
the control risk before determining if the entity is auditable.
Question 8
In performing the audit of internal control over financial reporting the auditor emphasizes internal control over class of transactions because:
Answer
the accuracy of accounting system outputs depends heavily on the accuracy of inputs and processing.
the class of transaction is where most fraud schemes occur.
account balances are less important to the auditor then the changes in the account balances.
classes of transactions tests are the most efficient manner to compensate for inherent risk.
Question 9
A five-step approach can be used to identify deficiencies, significant deficiencies, and material weaknesses. The first step in this approach is:
Answer
identify the absence of key controls.
consider the possibility of compensating controls.
determine potential misstatements that could result.
identify existing controls.
Question 10
Sarbanes-Oxley requires management to issue an internal control report that includes two specific items. Which of the following is one of these two requirements?
Answer
A statement that management is responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting
A statement that management and the board of directors are jointly responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting
A statement that management, the board of directors, and the external auditors are jointly responsible for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting
A statement that the external auditors are solely responsible
Question 11
To issue a report on internal control over financial reporting for a public company, an auditor must:
Answer
evaluate management’s assessment process.
independently assess the design and operating effectiveness of internal control.
evaluate management’s assessment process and independently assess the design and operating effectiveness of internal control.
test controls over significant account balances.
Question 12
Narratives, flowcharts, and internal control questionnaires are three common methods of:
Answer
testing the internal controls.
documenting the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.
designing the audit manual and procedures. 
documenting the auditor’s understanding of a client’s organizational structure.
Question 13
When considering internal controls, an important point to consider is that:
Answer
auditors can ignore controls affecting internal management information.
auditors are concerned with the client’s internal controls over the safeguarding of assets if they affect the financial statements.
management is responsible for understanding and testing internal control over financial reporting.
companies must use the COSO framework to establish internal controls.
Question 14
Which of the following deficiency exists if a necessary control is missing or not properly formulated?
Answer
Control
Significant
Design
Operating
Question 15
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Which of management’s assertions with respect to implementing internal controls is the auditor primarily concerned?
Answer
Efficiency of operations
Reliability of financial reporting
Effectiveness of operations
Compliance with applicable laws and regulations
Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Correct
When analyzing accounts for fraud risk:
companies will generally attempt to overstate accounts payable and net income.
the inventory account is generally not susceptible to fraud since the auditor must verify the existence of the inventory.
 payroll is rarely a significant risk for fraudulent financial reporting.
fixed assets are rarely stolen because of their large size
Question 17
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Auditing standards specifically require auditors to identify ________ as a fraud risk in most audits.
overstated assets
understated liabilities
improper revenue recognition
overstated expenses
Question 18
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Misappropriation of assets is normally perpetrated by:
Answer
members of the board of directors.
employees at lower levels of the organization.
management of the company.
the internal auditors
Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Most cases of fraudulent reporting involve:
Answer
inadequate disclosures.
an overstatement of income.
an overstatement of liabilities.
an overstatement of expenses
Question 20
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Which of the following questions is the auditor not required to ask company management when assessing fraud risk?
Answer
Does management have knowledge of any fraud or suspected fraud within the company?
What are the nature of the fraud risks identified by management?
Is management using all assets effectively?
What internal controls have been implemented to address the fraud risks
Question 21
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Two of the most useful warning signals that can indicate that revenue fraud is occurring are:
Answer
analytical procedures and documentary discrepancies.
analytical procedures and misappropriation of assets.
documentary discrepancies and vague responses to inquiries.
missing audit evidence and vague responses to inquiries
Question 22
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Fraud is more prevalent in smaller businesses and not-for-profit organizations because it is more difficult for them to maintain:
Answer
adequate separation of duties.
adequate compensation.
adequate financial reporting standards.
adequate supervisory boards
Question 23
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Which of the following is a factor that relates to incentives to misappropriate assets?
Answer
Significant accounting estimates involving subjective judgments
Significant personal financial obligations
Management’s practice of making overly aggressive forecasts
High turnover of accounting, internal audit and information technology staff
Question 24
2 out of 2 points
Correct
A company is concerned with the theft of cash after the sale has been recorded. One way in which fraudsters conceal the theft is by a process called “lapping.” Which of the following best describes lapping?
Answer
Reduce the customer’s account by recording a sales return
Write off the customer’s account
Apply the payment from another customer to the customer’s account
Reduce the customer’s account by recording a sales allowance
Question 25
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Companies may intentionally understate earnings when income is high to create ________ that may be used in future years to increase earnings.
Answer
income smoothing
cookie jar reserves
cash
sales
Question 26
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Which of the following is least likely to uncover fraud?
Answer
External auditors
Internal auditors
Internal controls
Management
Question 27
2 out of 2 points
Correct
When assessing the risk for fraud, the auditor must be cognizant of the fact that:
Answer
the existence of fraud risk factors means fraud exists.
analytical procedures must be performed on revenue accounts.
horizontal analysis is not useful in helping to determine unusual financial statement relationships.
the auditor cannot make inquiries about fraud to company personnel who have no financial statement responsibilities.
Question 28
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Fraud awareness training should be:
Answer
broad and all-encompassing.
extensive and include details for all functional areas.
specifically related to the employee’s job responsibility.
focused on employees understanding the importance of ethics
Question 29
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Auditors need to exhibit professional skepticism when auditing a client. This auditing standard is best expressed by which of the following?
Answer
The auditor neither assumes dishonesty or honesty of management.
The auditor assumes dishonesty of management.
The auditor assumes honesty of management.
The auditor assumes management lacks integrity
Question 30
2 out of 2 points
Correct
Company management is often under pressure to increase revenue and/or net income. One approach is to use a “bill and hold” arrangement. This is an example of which of the following?
Answer
Significant accounting estimates
Fictitious revenue recorded
Premature revenue recognized
Alteration of cutoff documents