STRAYER ACC560 WEEK 8 QUIZ CH 11 (2015 ) 100% ANSWER

STRAYER ACC560 WEEK 8 QUIZ CH 11 (2015 ) 100% ANSWER

Question

Multiple Choice Question 129

Dillon has a standard of 1.5 pounds of materials per unit, at $6 per pound. In producing 2,000 units, Dillon used 3,100 pounds of materials at a total cost of $18,135. Dillon’s materials price variance is

$1,050 F.

$135 U.

$465 F.

$600 F.

Multiple Choice Question 81

Scorpion Production Company planned to use 1 yard of plastic per unit budgeted at $81 a yard. However, the plastic actually cost $80 per yard. The company actually made 3,900 units, although it had planned to make only 3,300 units. Total yards used for production were 3,960. How much is the total materials variance?

$3,960 F

$48,600 U

$4,860 U

$900 U

Multiple Choice Question 51

Standard costs

may show past cost experience.

help establish expected future costs.

all of these.

are the budgeted cost per unit in the present.

Multiple Choice Question 68

Allowance for spoilage is part of the direct

labor price standard.

labor quantity standard.

materials price standard.

materials quantity standard.

Multiple Choice Question 99

A company uses 8,400 pounds of materials and exceeds the standard by 300 pounds. The quantity variance is $1,800 unfavorable. What is the standard price?

$2

$4

Cannot be determined from the data provided.

$6

Multiple Choice Question 152

The balanced scorecard approach

evaluates performance using about 10 different perspectives in order to effectively incorporate all areas of the organization.

uses rather vague, open statements when setting objectives in order to allow managers and employees flexibility.

normally sets the financial objectives first, and then sets the objectives in the other perspectives to accomplish the financial objectives.

uses only financial measures to evaluate performance.

Multiple Choice Question 78

Hofburg’s standard quantities for 1 unit of product include 2 pounds of materials and 1.5 labor hours. The standard rates are $2 per pound and $7 per hour. The standard overhead rate is $8 per direct labor hour. The total standard cost of Hofburg’s product is

$14.50.

$26.50.

$22.50.

$17.00.

Multiple Choice Question 54

If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, it should

set loose standards that are easy to fulfill.

not employ any standards.

set tight standards in order to motivate people.

offer wage incentives to those meeting standards.

Multiple Choice Question 56

Ideal standards

are rigorous but attainable.

reflect optimal performance under perfect operating conditions.

will always motivate employees to achieve the maximum output.

are the standards generally used in a master budget.

Multiple Choice Question 122

Shipp, Inc. manufactures a product requiring two pounds of direct material. During 2013, Shipp purchases 24,000 pounds of material for $99,200 when the standard price per pound is $4. During 2013, Shipp uses 22,000 pounds to make 12,000 products. The standard direct material cost per unit of finished product is

$8.00.

$8.53.

$8.27.

$9.01.

Multiple Choice Question 113

Monster Company produces a product requiring 3 direct labor hours at $16.00 per hour. During January, 2,000 products are produced using 6,300 direct labor hours. Monster’s actual payroll during January was $98,280. What is the labor quantity variance?

$2,520 F

$4,800 U

$4,800 F

$2,280 U

Multiple Choice Question 103

Edgar, Inc. has a materials price standard of $2.00 per pound. Six thousand pounds of materials were purchased at $2.20 a pound. The actual quantity of materials used was 6,000 pounds, although the standard quantity allowed for the output was 5,400 pounds.

Edgar, Inc.’s materials price variance is

$120 U.

$1,200 U.

$1,200 F.

$1,080 U.

Multiple Choice Question 105

Edgar, Inc. has a materials price standard of $2.00 per pound. Six thousand pounds of materials were purchased at $2.20 a pound. The actual quantity of materials used was 6,000 pounds, although the standard quantity allowed for the output was 5,400 pounds.

Edgar, Inc.’s total materials variance is

$2,400 F.

$2,520 U.

$2,520 F.

$2,400 U.

Multiple Choice Question 73

Oxnard Industries produces a product that requires 2.6 pounds of materials per unit. The allowance for waste and spoilage per unit is .3 pounds and .1 pounds, respectively. The purchase price is $2 per pound, but a 2% discount is usually taken. Freight costs are $.10 per pound, and receiving and handling costs are $.07 per pound. The hourly wage rate is $12.00 per hour, but a raise which will average $.30 will go into effect soon. Payroll taxes are $1.20 per hour, and fringe benefits average $2.40 per hour. Standard production time is 1 hour per unit, and the allowance for rest periods and setup is .2 hours and .1 hours, respectively. The standard direct labor rate per hour is

$15.90.

$15.60.

$12.30.

$12.00.

Multiple Choice Question 41

The difference between a budget and a standard is that

a budget expresses a total amount, while a standard expresses a unit amount.

a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be.

a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened.

standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system.

STRAYER ACC560 WEEK 8 QUIZ CH 11 (2015 ) 100% ANSWER

BUS475/BUS 475 Week-3 Final Exam (50 QUESTIONS) ALL ARE CORRECT

BUS475/BUS 475 Week-3 Final Exam (50 QUESTIONS) ALL ARE CORRECT

Question

Question-1 Communication is the process of

transferring information and meaning.

listening actively.

writing messages.

talking constantly.

Question-2: Business communication is often more demanding than social communication because communication on the job is affected by

politics.

the growing reliance on teamwork in business.

personalities.

desire to always advance and move up in an organization.

Question-3 What are the benefits of using IM in business communication?

Less personal

Low cost

Ability to exclude those unable to use IM

To maintain a quiet work environment

Question-4: What are the three major steps in the writing process?

Plan, Write, and Complete

Plan, Construct, and Complete

Prepare, Write, and Complete

Prepare, Construct, and Stop

Question-5: What way can you build credibility with an audience when planning a persuasive message?

Use simple language.

Use difficult language.

Use descriptive language.

Use hostile language.

Question-6: What type of data visual would you use to illustrate trends over time?

Gantt chart

Bar graph

Line chart

Scatter diagrams

Question-7: How do you keep the audience’s attention?

Use confusing language

Relate your subject to your audience’s needs

Talk about yourself

Offer a reward

Question-8: What does quality of hire mean?

A measure of how a new employee is hired

How good an employee is at getting hired

On a 1–10 scale, the hire is a 10

A measure of how closely new employees meet the company’s needs

Question-9 What is a subjective statement?

A statement involving a subject

A statement made true by someone thinking it is true

A statement that pertains to a chapter in a book

A statement that is fact

Question-10: An argument consists of two parts:

the fact and the rebuttal

the subject and the outcome

the premise and the conclusion

the point and the conclusion

Question-11: What are some rhetorical devices used in persuasive messages?

Syllogisms

Stereotypes

Memories

Biases

Question-12: __________ are part of the elements of creativity?

Domain skills

Thinking skills

Listening skills

Athletic skills

Question-13: Our most reliable source of information about the world is

our own observations.

cable news.

the Internet.

Facebook.

Question-14: The reliability of our observations is not better than the reliability of our ____________.

senses

family

memories

friends

Question-15: The following is an example of a moral value judgment:

As an actress, Paris Hilton has a nice clothes rack.

Keith Lewis must be a total flake.

The senator dresses well.

I don’t deserve to be flunked for an honest mistake.

Question-16: Utilitarianism is

an act that will produce more happiness than will alternatives, it is the right thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be wrong to do.

an act that will produce less happiness than will alternatives, it is the right thing to do, and if it will produce more happiness, it would be wrong to do.

an act that will produce more happiness than will alternatives, it is the wrong thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be right to do.

an act that will produce less happiness than will alternatives, it is the wrong thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be right to do.

Question-17: One of the principal roles of the Judiciary is

to provide the other branches of government with legal counsel.

to issue common law writs.

to issue injunctions and related orders.

to resolve disputes.

Question-18: Business ethics may be defined as

taking an expedient approach to any business situation

doing what is most advantageous for the business

a consciousness of what is right or wrong in the workplace

minimizing decisions having potentially adverse consequences for business stakeholders

Question- 19: “Fair use” is a defense to copyright infringement that

requires findings by a court.

is non-statutory.

is absolute.

is available in all countries.

Question-20: A valid contract must

be entirely in writing

be signed by all parties

use the title “Contract” at the top of the document

 

exist where all necessary legal elements for contract formation are present

BUS475/BUS 475 Week-3 Final Exam (50 QUESTIONS) ALL ARE CORRECT

Strayer ACC 206 Accounting Principles II Week 6 Quiz (71 Questions)

Strayer ACC 206 Accounting Principles II Week 6 Quiz (71 Questions)

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS

1. Dividends may be declared and paid in cash or stock.

True

False

2. Cash dividends are not a liability of the corporation until they are declared by the board of directors.

True

False

3. The amount of a cash dividend liability is recorded on the date of record because it is on that date that the persons or entities who will receive the dividend are identified.

True

False

4. A 10% stock dividend will increase the number of shares outstanding but the book value per share will decrease.

True

False

5. A 3 for 1 common stock split will increase total stockholders’ equity but reduce the par or stated value per share of common stock.

True

False

6. Retained earnings represents the amount of cash available for dividends.

True

False

7. Net income of a corporation should be closed to retained earnings and net losses should be closed to paid-in capital accounts.

True

False

8. A debit balance in the Retained Earnings account is identified as a deficit.

True

False

9. A correction in income of a prior period involves either a debit or credit to the Retained Earnings account.

True

False

10. Prior period adjustments to income are reported in the current year’s income statement.

True

False

11. Retained earnings that are restricted are unavailable for dividends.

True

False

12. Restricted retained earnings are available for preferred stock dividends but unavailable for common stock dividends.

True

False

13. A retained earnings statement shows the same information as a corporation income statement.

True

False

14. A detailed stockholders’ equity section in the balance sheet will list the names of individuals who are eligible to receive dividends on the date of record.

True

False

15. Common Stock Dividends Distributable is shown within the Paid-in Capital subdivision of the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet.

True

False

16. Return on common stockholders’ equity is computed by dividing net income by ending stockholders’ equity.

True

False

17. Many companies prepare a stockholders’ equity statement instead of presenting a detailed stockholders’ equity section in the balance sheet.

True

False

18. A major difference among corporations, proprietorships, and partnerships is that a corporation’s income statement reports income tax expense.

True

False

19. A corporation incurs income tax expense only if it pays dividends to stockholders.

True

False

20. Income tax expense usually appears as a separate section on a corporation income statement.

True

False

21. Earnings per share is calculated by dividing net income by the weighted average number of shares of preferred stock and common stock outstanding.

True

False

22. Preferred dividends paid are added back to net income in calculating earnings per share for common stockholders.

True

False

23. Earnings per share indicates the net income earned by each share of outstanding common stock.

True

False

24. Earnings per share is reported for both preferred and common stock.

True

False

25. Most companies are required to report earnings per share on the face of the income statement.

True

False

Additional True-False Questions

26. A dividend based on paid-in capital is termed a liquidating dividend.

True

False

27. Common Stock Dividends Distributable is reported as additional paid-in capital in the stockholders’ equity section.

True

False

28. A prior period adjustment is reported as an adjustment of the beginning balance of Retained Earnings.

True

False

29. Income tax expense and the related liability for income taxes payable are recorded when taxes are paid.

True

False

30. Earnings per share is reported only for common stock.

True

False

MULTIPLECHOICE QUESTIONS

31. Each of the following decreases retained earnings except a

a. cash dividend.

b. liquidating dividend.

c. stock dividend.

 

d. All of these decrease retained earnings.

Strayer ACC 206 Accounting Principles II Week 6 Quiz (71 Questions)

MATH 104 MIDTERM

MATH 104 MIDTERM

1. A 99% confidence interval estimate can be interpreted to mean that

a. if all possible samples are taken and confidence interval estimates are developed, 99% of them would include the true population mean somewhere within their interval.

b. we have 99% confidence that we have selected a sample whose interval does include the population mean.

c. Both of the above.

d. None of the above.

2. Which of the following is not true about the Student’s t distribution?

a. It has more area in the tails and less in the center than does the normal distribution.

b. It is used to construct confidence intervals for the population mean when the population standard deviation is known.

c. It is bell shaped and symmetrical.

d. As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution.

3. A confidence interval was used to estimate the proportion of statistics students that are females. A random sample of 72 statistics students generated the following 90% confidence interval: (0.438, 0.642). Based on the interval above, is the population proportion of females equal to 0.60?

a. No, and we are 90% sure of it.

b. No. The proportion is 54.17%.

c. Maybe. 0.60 is a believable value of the population proportion based on the information above.

d. Yes, and we are 90% sure of it.

4. A confidence interval was used to estimate the proportion of statistics students that are female. A random sample of 72 statistics students generated the following 90% confidence interval: (0.438, 0.642). Using the information above, what size sample would be necessary if we wanted to estimate the true proportion to within 0.08 using 95% confidence?

a. 105

b. 150

c. 420

d. 597

5. When determining the sample size necessary for estimating the true population mean, which factor is not considered when sampling with replacement?

a. The population size.

b. The population standard deviation.

c. The level of confidence desired in the estimate.

d. The allowable or tolerable sampling error.

6. An economist is interested in studying the incomes of consumers in a particular region. The population standard deviation is known to be $1,000. A random sample of 50 individuals resulted in an average income of $15,000. What is the upper end point in a 99% confidence interval for the average income?

a. $15,052

b. $15,141

c. $15,330

d. $15,364

7. An economist is interested in studying the incomes of consumers in a particular region. The population standard deviation is known to be $1,000. A random sample of 50 individuals resulted in an average income of $15,000. What sample size would the economist need to use for a 95% confidence interval if the width of the interval should not be more than

$100?

a. n = 1537

b. n = 385

c. n = 40

d. n = 20

8. The head librarian at the Library of Congress has asked her assistant for an interval estimate of the mean number of books checked out each day. The assistant provides the following interval estimate: from 740 to 920 books per day. If the head librarian knows that the population standard deviation is 150 books checked out per day, and she asked her assistant to use 25 days of data to construct the interval estimate, what confidence level can she attach to the interval estimate?

a. 99.7%

b. 99.0%

c. 98.0%

d. 95.4%

9. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis?

a. The population proportion is less than 0.65.

b. The sample proportion is less than 0.65.

c. The population proportion is no less than 0.65.

d. The sample proportion is no less than 0.65.

10. If we are performing a two-tailed test of whether = 100, the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 105 will be ________ the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 110.

a. less than

b. greater than

c. equal to

d. not comparable to

11. Which of the following statements is not true about the level of significance in a hypothesis test?

a. The larger the level of significance, the more likely you are to reject the null hypothesis.

b. The level of significance is the maximum risk we are willing to accept in making a Type I error.

c. The significance level is also called the level.

d. The significance level is another name for Type II error.

12. A _________________ is a numerical quantity computed from the data of a sample and is used in reaching a decision on whether or not to reject the null hypothesis.

a. significance level

b. critical value

c. test statistic

d. parameter

TABLE 7-2

A student claims that he can correctly identify whether a person is a business major or an agriculture major by the way the person dresses. Suppose in actuality that he can correctly identify a business major 87% of

the time, while 16% of the time he mistakenly identifies an agriculture major as a business major. Presented with one person and asked to identify the major of this person (who is either a business or agriculture major), he

considers this to be a hypothesis test with the null hypothesis being that the person is a business major and the alternative that the person is an agriculture major.

13. Referring to Table 7-2, what would be a Type I error?

a. Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is a business major.

b. Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is an agriculture major.

c. Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is a business major.

d. Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is an agriculture major.

TABLE 7-6

The quality control engineer for a furniture manufacturer is interested in the mean amount of force necessary to produce cracks in stressed oak furniture. The mean for unstressed furniture is 650 psi. She performs a two-tailed test of the null hypothesis that the mean for the stressed oak furniture is 650. The calculated value of the Z test statistic is a positive number that leads to a p value of 0.080 for the test.

14. Referring to Table 7-6, suppose the engineer had decided that the alternative hypothesis to test was that the mean was less than 650. What would be the p value of this one-tailed test?

a. 0.040

b. 0.160

c. 0.840

d. 0.960

15. The t test for the mean difference between 2 related populations assumes that the respective

a. sample sizes are equal.

b. sample variances are equal.

c. populations are approximately normal or sample sizes are large enough.

d. All of the above.

16. In testing for differences between the means of 2 related populations

the null hypothesis is:

a. H0: D = 2.

b. H0: D = 0.

c. H0: D < 0.

d. H0: D > 0.

17. To use the Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test as a test for location, we must assume that

a. the obtained data are either ranks or numerical measurements both within and between the 2 samples.

b. both samples are randomly and independently drawn from their respective populations.

c. both underlying populations from which the samples were drawn are equivalent in shape and dispersion.

d. All the above.

TABLE 8-4

A real estate company is interested in testing whether, on average, families in Gotham have been living in their current homes for less time than families in Metropolis have. A random sample of 100 families from Gotham and

a random sample of 150 families in Metropolis yield the following data on length of residence in current homes.

Gotham: G = 35 months, sG2 = 900 Metropolis: M = 50 months, sM2 = 1050

18. Referring to Table 8-4, what is(are) the critical value(s) of the relevant hypothesis test if the level of significance is 0.01?

a. t  Z = -1.96

b. t  Z = 1.96

c. t  Z = -2.080

d. t  Z = -2.33

19. Referring to Table 8-4, what is the standardized value of the estimate of the mean of the sampling distribution of the difference between sample means?

a. -8.75

b. -3.75

c. -2.33

d. -1.96

TABLE 8-5

To test the effects of a business school preparation course, eight (8) students took a general business test before and after the course. The results are given below.

Exam Score Exam Score

Student Before Course (1) After Course (2)

1 530 670

2 690 770

3 910 1000

4 700 710

5 450 550

6 820 870

7 820 770

8 630 610

20. Referring to Table 8-5, at the 0.05 level of significance, the decision for this hypothesis test would be:

a. reject the null hypothesis.

b. do not reject the null hypothesis.

c. reject the alternative hypothesis.

d. It cannot be determined from the information given.

MATH 104 MIDTERM

MSSU GB0320/GB0320 final exam (37 QUESTIONS)

MSSU GB0320/GB0320 final exam (37 QUESTIONS)

Question 1

“Programs such as Microsoft PowerPoint and Adobe Presenter allow presenters to design ____, which can include sound, videos, and hyperlinks.

overhead transparencies

multimedia slides

videos

handouts

Question 2

“Informal reports are written in a style that uses

contractions.

third-person pronouns, such as the researcher and the writer.

passive-voice verbs.

All of these choices

Question 3

“Select the most accurate statement about proposals.

Most internal proposals are written in response to Requests for Proposals (RFPs).

Most proposals are unsolicited.

Proposals are legal contracts.

Most proposals are internal.

Question 4

“Informational reports should be organized using which of the following patterns?

Introduction/problem, facts/findings, conclusions/recommendations, discussion/analysis   

Introduction/problem, conclusions/recommendations, facts/findings, discussion/analysis

Introduction/background, facts/findings, summary/conclusion

Summary/conclusion, introduction/background, facts/findings

Question 5

“Formal proposals differ from informal proposals in

style.

size and format.

emotional and rational appeals.

persuasive techniques used.

Question 6

“The conclusions of a report

should be written using command language.

offer specific suggestions for actions that can solve a report problem.

should analyze information logically and show how the data answer questions and solve problems.

All of these choices

Question 7

Determine the mean of the numbers 30, 25, 25, 45, and 70.

195

25

30

39

Question 8

“The primary reason that management often requires trip, convention, and conference reports is to

get a thorough chronological list of everything that occurred during a trip, convention, or conference.      

determine whether the employee can be trusted to travel alone.

find out whether the organization’s money was well spent in funding the travel.

gather material for press releases.

Question 09

“You want to be prepared if you are asked about your salary expectations during a job interview. What should you do?

Do research before the interview so that you know what similar jobs are paying in your geographic region.

Determine what you would like to earn per hour so that you can give an exact dollar amount when asked.

Create a budget that details your personal expenses so that you can show the employer exactly how much you need to earn to cover your bills.

All of these choices

Question 10

“An effective résumé style for job hunters who are afraid of appearing overqualified is the

scannable résumé.

functional résumé.

chronological résumé.

online résumé.

Question 11

“A good introductory paragraph for a business report should

preview the main points and the order in which they will be developed.

tell the purpose of the report.

describe the significance of the report topic.

All of these choices    

Question 12

“The first step in writing a report is to

prepare a work plan.

implement your research strategy.

analyze the problem or assignment clearly.

compose the first draft.

Question 13

“Which of the following appears in the market analysis section of a business plan?

A discussion of barriers to entry

An overview of complementary products and services

A summary of the strengths and weaknesses of your direct and indirect competitors

All of these choices

Question 14

“Shondra will graduate from college soon and is beginning the job search process. What should she do first?

Research salary, benefits, and job stability in a chosen field

Develop an effective résumé to be sent to prospective employers

Locate a specific job opening at a desirable company

Identify her interests and goals and evaluate her qualifications

Question 15

“Much of the information that allows decision makers to run their organizations effectively comes to them in the form of

Web searches.

reports.

Wikipedia entries.

employees’ comments during meetings.

Question 16

Helpful previews, summaries, and transitions in an oral presentation are example of

conclusions.

criteria.

verbal signposts.

components.

Question 17

“An abstract included with a formal proposal is typically

one page long.

three to four pages long.

five to six pages long.

up to 10 percent of the original text.

Question 18

“Select the statement that best describes the summary of qualifications portion of a résumé.

Place the summary of qualifications at the bottom of your résumé to give it a strong ending.

A summary of qualifications makes your résumé easier to read.

Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the summary of qualification section because it adds to reading time.

Format the summary of qualifications section as one or two concise paragraphs.

Question 19

“What should you do after the interview?

Write a thank-you letter immediately.

Wait a few days to see if you hear from the employer; if not, write a thank-you letter.

Call the interviewer to thank him or her.

Send the interviewer flowers.

Question 20

“Because it quickly reveals a candidate’s education and experience most recruiters favor a(n)

scannable résumé.

functional résumé.

chronological résumé.

 

online résumé.

MSSU GB0320/GB0320 final exam (37 QUESTIONS)

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

Inventory Analysis and Optimizing Staffing”

•Recommend a strategy for financial administrators to balance the tension between having inventory on hand when it is needed versus the carry cost to the organization. Provide support for your recommendation. •Assume that you are a health care administrator in a hospital, and you are responsible for staffing levels. Suggest an approach to staffing for 24/7 coverage that optimizes patient care, minimizes cost, and produces the highest level of employee satisfaction. Provide support for your rationale. Assignment 1: Financial Statement Analysis Due Week 4 and worth 200 points

Select one (1) of the following publically traded health care organizations: Universal Health Services (NYSE: UHS) or Health Management Associates (NYSE: HMA).

Suppose you are a newly appointed CFO of your chosen health care organization. One of your first tasks is to conduct an internal financial analysis of the organization. Conduct a brief financial analysis and review of the chosen company’s financial statements for at least three (3) consecutive years. After conducting the analysis, interpret the data contained within the statements.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

1.Based on your review of the financial statements, suggest a key insight about the financial health of the company. Speculate on the likely reaction to the financial statements from various stakeholder groups (employee, investors, shareholders). Provide support for your rationale. 2.Identify the current industry trend that has the most significant impact on your chosen organization’s financial performance. Indicate the trend’s impact on the financial performance of the organization. As the CFO, suggest at least one (1) way that you might minimize the impact of the trend on the organization. 3.As the CFO, suggest one (1) key strategy that you might use in order to improve the financial performance of the organization. Recommend an approach to implement the suggested strategy. Provide support for your recommendation. 4.Use at least four (4) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

•Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. •Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:


•Evaluate the financial statements and the financial position of health care institutions. •Analyze the role of important financial reporting statements – income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows – and explain how they relate to one another and to the underlying sources of data. •Use technology and information resources to research issues in health financial management. •Write clearly and concisely about health financial management using proper writing mechanics. Click here to view the grading rubric for this assignment.

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

Statistics Questions

Statistics Questions

Week 6 Assignment: Apply Repeated-Measures

Activity Description

You will submit one Word document for this activity. You will create this Word document by cutting and pasting SPSS output into Word.

This assignment consists of two parts. In the first part, you will utilize an existing dataset to analyze the dataset from repeated-measures experimental design. All SPSS output should be pasted into your Word document. In the second part, you will be asked to create a dataset for a hypothetical repeated-measures experimental design. Finally, you will answer questions about your hypothetical dataset.

Part A. SPSS Assignment
The “Activity 6.sav” file contains a dataset of a high school teacher interested in determining whether his students’ test scores increase over the course of a 12 week period. In the dataset, you will find the following variables:
Participant: unique identifier
Gender: Male (M) or Female (F)
Score_0 – score on the initial course pre-test (first day of class)
Score_2 – score at the end of week 2
Score_4 – score at the end of week 4
Score_6 – score at the end of week 6
Score_8 – score at the end of week 8
Score_10 – score at the end of week 10
Score_12 – score at the end of the course (week 12)

To complete this Activity 
1. Exploratory Data Analysis.

a. Perform exploratory data analysis on the relevant variables in the dataset. When possible, include appropriate graphs to help illustrate the dataset.

b. Compose a one to two paragraph write up of the data.

c. Create an APA style table that presents descriptive statistics for the sample.

2. Repeated-Measures ANOVA. Perform a repeated-measures ANOVA using the “Activity 6.sav” data set. You will use Score_0 through Score_12 as your repeated measure (7 levels), and gender as a fixed factor.

a. Is the assumption of sphericity violated? How can you tell? What does this mean in the context of interpreting the results?

b. Is there a main effect of gender? If so, explain the effect. Use post hoc tests when necessary or explain why they are not required in this specific case.

c. Is there a main effect time (i.e., an increase in scores from Week 0 to Week 12)? If so, explain the effect. Use post hoc tests when necessary or explain why they are not required in this specific case. Examine the output carefully and give as much detail as possible in your findings.

d. Write up the results in APA style and interpret them. Be sure that you discuss both main effects and the presence/absence of an interaction between the two.

Part B. Applying Analytical Strategies to an Area of Research Interest
3. Briefly restate your research area of interest.

a. Identify at least 2 variables for which you would utilize a repeated-measures ANOVA in your analysis. Describe the variables and their scale of measurement. Identify whether each factor is fixed or repeating. Where on the SPSS output would you look to find out if you violated the assumption of sphericity? If the data did violate this assumption, what would the impact be on your analysis?

Statistics Questions