Friday, October 30, 2015

ECO365 FINAL EXAM 2015


ECO365 FINAL EXAM 2015

Question
1. The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Is constant
Never declines
Eventually declines
Always declines
2. Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
3. Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
4. In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
5. There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
Monopolistically competitive.
Perfectly competitive.
An oligopoly.
A pure monopoly.
6. Cartels are organizations that:
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
7. Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Pareto externality
Negative externality
Normative externality
8. Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
9. Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of demand
The law of supply
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of diminishing marginal utility
10. Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
11. Microeconomics is the study of:
unemployment
a firm’s pricing policies
business cycles
inflation
12. For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
13. Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
14. When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
15. A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
16. Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
17. Strategic decision making is most important in:
Competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.
Oligopolistic markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
18. A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Increase and employment to increase.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to decrease.
19. The best example of positive externality is:
Pollution
Roller coaster rides
Alcoholic beverages
Education
20. Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
21. Graphically, a change in price causes:
both supply and demand to shift.
the supply curve to shift.
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the demand curve to shift.
22. Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right.
demand curve shifting to the right.
demand curve shifting to the left.
23. The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
24. The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
opportunity cost
demand
supply
profit maximization
25. Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such? activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
26. In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
27. Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
28. At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Decreasing returns to scale
Increasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
29. A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Shut down
Continue producing 500 widgets
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
30. Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Economies of scope
Diminishing marginal productivity

BAM110/BAM 110 Unit 1 Exam (A+++++)


BAM110/BAM 110 Unit 1 Exam (A+++++)

1. The type of business organization that can continue indefinitely is known as a:
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. None of the above.
2. The purpose of the accounting process is to provide financial information about:
a. sole proprietorships
b. small businesses
c. large corporations
d. All of the above.
3. The cash purchase of a truck was recorded as a purchase on credit. Due to this error:
a. assets were overstated
b. liabilities were overstated
c. answers a and b are both correct
d. None of the above.
4. Which of the following would cause one asset to increase and another asset to decrease?
a. The owner invested cash in the business.
b. The business paid a creditor.
c. The business incurred an expense on credit.
d. The business bought supplies for cash.
5. Which accounts are affected when the company buys supplies on account?
a. assets and capital
b. liabilities and capital
c. assets and liabilities
d. None of the above.
6. Which accounts are affected when the company provides services to a cash customer?
a. assets and capital
b. liabilities and capital
c. assets and revenue
d. None of the above.
7. Which accounts are affected when the owner withdraws cash from the business?
a. assets and withdrawals
b. liabilities and capital
c. assets and liabilities
d. None of the above.
8. A chart of accounts:
a. is set up in alphabetical order
b. includes account balances
c. is a listing of all the accounts used by a company
d. All of the above.
9. Accounts payable had a normal starting balance of $800. There were debit postings of $600 and credit postings of $300 during the month. The ending balance is:
a. $500 debit
b. $1,000 debit
c. $500 credit
d. $1,000 credit
10. The beginning balance in the computers account was $2,000. The company purchased an additional $1000 worth of computers. The balance in the account is:
a. debit of $2,000
b. credit of $3,000
c. debit of $3,000
d. credit of $2,000
11. A list of all the accounts from the ledger with their ending balances is called a:
a. normal balance
b. trial balance
c. chart of accounts
d. footing
12. Which of the following is prepared first?
a. balance sheet
b. income statement
c. statement of owner’s equity
d. trial balance
13. Which type of account would not be reported on the income statement?
a. revenue
b. expenses
c. liabilities
d. None of the above.
14. The left column of a financial statement is often used to:
a. subtotal numbers
b. show credits
c. show totals
d. show debits
15. The beginning capital account would appear on which financial statement?
a. statement of owner’s equity
b. balance sheet
c. income statement
d. None of the above.
16. The income statement contains:
a. liabilities
b. revenues
c. assets
d. Both b and c are correct.
17. Net income or net loss for a period is calculated by which of the following formula?
a. total revenues – total withdrawals
b. total revenues – total expenses – total withdrawals
c. total revenues – total expenses
d. total revenues – total expenses + capital
18. The process that begins with recording business transactions and includes the completion of
the financial statements is the:
a. calendar year
b. natural business years
c. fiscal year
d. accounting cycle
19. The twelve-month period a business chooses for its accounting period is a(n):
a. calendar year
b. accounting period
c. fiscal year
d. accounting cycle
20. If cash has been debited, it is likely that:
a. the owner made an investment
b. a charge customer made a payment
c. the business borrowed cash from the bank
d. All of the above.
21. If prepaid rent has been debited, it is likely that:
a. the rent was paid for three months in advance
b. a bill for the past month’s rent was received
c. this month’s rent was paid
d. All of the above.
22. Proof that the dollar amount of the debits equals the dollar amount of the credits in the ledger means:
a. all of the information from the journal was correctly transferred to the ledger
b. all accounts have their correct balances in the ledger
c. only the ledger is accurate; the journal may be incorrect
d. only that the debit dollar amounts equal the credit dollar amounts
23. In preparing the trial balance of the K&L’s Bridal Service, the withdrawal account (which had a normal balance in the general ledger) was listed as a credit for $400. What will be the difference between the debit and credit sides of the trial balance?
a. $150
b. $200
c. $300
d. $800
24. The trial balance:
a. includes all accounts with a balance in the ledger
b. includes assets, liabilities, capital, withdrawals, revenues and expenses
c. ensures that debits equal credits
d. All of the above.
25) The proper format for a journal entry includes all of the following, except:
a. the total amounts of debits must equal the total amount of credits
b. skip a line between transactions
c. the credit portion of the transaction is always first
d. listed in chronological order

HRM 560/HRM560 ASSIGNMENT 4: CHANGE MANAGEMENT PLAN


HRM 560/HRM560 ASSIGNMENT 4: CHANGE MANAGEMENT PLAN

Due Week 10 and worth 175 points
Using the organization where you work, one where you have worked, or one in which you are very familiar, identify a Human Resource Management program, policy, procedure, or initiative that you believe needs to be changed. Your goal is to apply Kotter’s 8 Stage Process of Creating Change to the HR situation you have selected, with corresponding suggestions for how to put this change initiative into practice. Once it is formulated, you will present your recommendations to upper management.
This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written report and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit the two (2) sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Section 1: Change Management Plan
 Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
Describe the organization in terms of industry, size, and history.
Describe how the HR program /policy / process / procedure / initiative that has been proposed should be changed.
Describe three (3) reasons why this change is important to make.
Describe the recommended change.
Develop a strategy that illustrates how you would address each of the eight (8) Stages of Change (Establishing a sense of urgency; creating coalition; developing vision and strategy; communicating the vision; empowering broad-based action; generating short term wins; consolidating gains and producing more change; anchoring new approaches into the culture).
Identify potential resistance to change and describe how the resistance would be managed.
Outline at least three (3) communications strategies you would use.
Propose two (2) diagnostic tools to identify the changes that need to be made in organization.
Recommend two (2) strategies for sustaining the change.
Use at least four (4) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
 Section 1 of this assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
 Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
 
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

POST FIN301/FIN 301 UNIT 7 QUIZ


POST FIN301/FIN 301 UNIT 7 QUIZ

Question 1
10 out of 10 points
Which of the following could lead to cash flow problems?
Answer
Tightening of credit by suppliers
Easing of credit by suppliers
Reduction of inventory
Improved quality of accounts receivable
Selling of bonds
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Which of the following represents an internal source of cash?
Answer
Cash inflows from financing activities
Cash inflows from investing activities
Cash inflows from selling land
Cash inflows from operating activities
Cash inflows from issuing stock
Question 3
10 out of 10 points
Which of the following is not a typical cash flow under operating activities?
Answer
cash inflows from sale of goods or services
cash inflows from interest
cash outflows to employees
cash outflows to suppliers
cash inflows from sale of property, plant, and equipment
Question 4
10 out of 10 points
Working capital is defined as
Answer
total assets less intangible assets
current assets divided by current liabilities
current assets less current liabilities
total assets less current assets
current assets less liabilities
Question 5
0 out of 10 points
Management should use the statement of cash flows for which of the following purposes?
Answer
To determine dividend policy
To determine cash flow from operations
To determine cash flow from investing activities
To determine cash flow from financing activities
To determine the balance in accounts receivable
Question 6
10 out of 10 points
Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The notes should not be used to
Answer
Describe depreciation methods employed by the company. 
Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry in which the company operates when these principles and methods are predominately followed in that industry. 
Disclose the basis of consolidation for consolidated statements. 
Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements.
Question 7
0 out of 10 points
The concept of conservatism is often considered important in accounting. The application of this concept means that in the event some doubt occurs as to how a transaction should be recorded, it should be recorded so as to
Answer
Understate income and overstate assets
Overstate income and overstate assets
Understate income and understate assets
Overstate income and understate assets
Question 8
0 out of 10 points
Which of the following ratios would best disclose effective management of working capital by a given firm relative to other firms in the same industry?
Answer
A high rate of financial leverage relative to the industry average 
A high number of days’ sales uncollected relative to the industry average 
A high turnover of net working capital relative to the industry average 
A high number of days’ sales in inventory relative to the industry average 
Question 9
10 out of 10 points
Which of the following would not be an example of the use of a multiple when valuing common equity?
Answer
Multiperiod discounted earnings models
Price-to-earnings (PE)
Price-to-book
Price-to-operating cash flow
Question 10
10 out of 10 points
Which of the following was not given as a reason for acquirers paying too much in an acquisition?
Answer
Overbidding
Overuse of conventional financial statements
Overoptimistic appraisal of market potential
Overestimation of synergies

CIS 500/CIS500 QUIZ: 3. SERVICE STRATEGY PROCESSES CHAPTER 3 (ANSWER 18/18)


CIS 500/CIS500 QUIZ: 3. SERVICE STRATEGY PROCESSES CHAPTER 3 (ANSWER 18/18)

Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 1 of 18 
Q: Which of the following roles tailor a portfolio of investments based on their customer’s risk and reward profile? 
Service managers 
Customer managers 
Financial managers 
Process managers
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 2 of 18 
Q: Service Portfolio is divided into how many phases? 
Three 
Two 
Seven 
Six 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 3 of 18 
Q: Which of these statements about business relationship management (BRM) is most correct? 
BRM focuses on a high-level relationship with customers. 
BRM reviews all service changes. 
BRM monitors the service targets for all services. 
BRM focuses on the relationship with users through the service desk.
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 4 of 18 
Q: Which of the following is a decision support and planning tool that projects the possible consequences of a business action? 
Configuration item 
Release unit 
Business case 
Service asset
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 5 of 18 
Q: Which of these is not part of the scope of financial management? 
Budgeting 
Charging 
Accounting 
Consolidating
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 6 of 18 
Q: Which of these is not part of the structure of the service portfolio? 
Service pipeline 
Service register 
Retired services 
Service catalog 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 7 of 18 
Q: Which of these is not part of the scope of service portfolio management? 
All the services a service provider is planning to deliver 
All the services a service provider has retired from live operation 
All the services a service provider currently delivers 
All the projects the customer is planning to deliver
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 8 of 18 
Q: Which of the following describes a provider’s services in terms of business value? 
Service value 
Service assessment 
Service portfolio 
Service update
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 9 of 18 
Q: What is the purpose of the service portfolio management process? 
To capture details of live operational services only 
To capture details of retired services only 
To ensure all services are documented according to the requirements of the business 
To ensure you have an appropriate mix of services to meet the requirements of customers
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 10 of 18 
Q: Which of the following functions is NOT part of Financial Management for IT services? 
Budgeting 
Charging 
Procurement 
Pricing 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 11 of 18 
Q: Which of these statements represents an objective of service portfolio management? 
Maintain the definitive managed portfolio of services provided by the service provider. 
Provide accurate information about the service level achievements for core services. 
Deliver authorized change requests. 
Maintain records of all service components and their relationships. 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 12 of 18 
Q: Which of the following budgeting methods is determined on the last year’s figure basis? 
Zero-Base budgeting 
Top-down budgeting 
Resource budgeting 
Incremental budgeting
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 13 of 18 
Q: Which of the following is NOT a fundamental activity of Financial Management for IT services? 
Funding 
Chargeback 
IT accounting 
Auditing 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 14 of 18 
Q: Which of these statements about service portfolio management is/are correct?
1. Service portfolio management should be responsible for monitoring the performance of the services according to the service level agreements.
2. Service portfolio management should be responsible for evaluating the value of the services provided throughout the whole of their lifecycle.
3. Service portfolio management should be able to compare the merits of the existing services against those that are being planned. 
4. Service portfolio management should compare the results of continual service improvement initiatives to decide whether to improve services.
1, 2, and 4 
1, 2, and 3 
2 and 4 
2 and 3 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 15 of 18 
Q: What is the purpose of financial management? 
To secure to the appropriate software programs for financial systems 
To agree to the operating policies for the finance systems 
To agree to the business requirements for managing the finance systems 
To secure to the appropriate funding for IT services
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 16 of 18 
Q: Which of these is a purpose of business relationship management (BRM)? 
Manage the services provided to a customer 
Establish a mechanism for recording service requests from the customer 
Establish a relationship between the service provider and the customer 
Manage the funding for services provided to a customer
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 17 of 18 
Q: Which of these is/are recommended elements of a business case?
1. Introduction
2. Methods and assumptions
3. Business impacts
4. Risks and contingencies
5. Recommendations 
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 
1, 3, and 5 
1, 2, 3, and 4 
Quiz: 3. Service Strategy Processes, 18 of 18 
Q: Which of the following represents a complete list of the services managed by a service provider? 
Service portfolio 
Service record 
Service case 
Service data

APU Busn311/BUSN 311 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2015


APU Busn311/BUSN 311 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2015

Question
Question 1 of 10
10.0 Points
EEOC laws apply to all businesses
A. True
B. False
Question 2 of 10
10.0 Points
A help-wanted ad that seeks “recent college graduates” may violate the law.
A. True
B. False
Question 3 of 10
10.0 Points
Select the accommodation that would not be a “reasonable accommodation” for employees with a disability:
A. providing a ramp for wheelchair use
B. providing an interpreter for a deaf applicant
C. installing an elevator in a 200 year old building
D. providing a reader for a blind employee
Question 4 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following would not be considered harassment:
A. unwelcome sexual advances
B. simple teasing
C. slurs
D. derogatory comments
Question 5 of 10
10.0 Points
All of the following inquiries can appear on an employee application except:
A. age
B. religion
C. race
D. sex
E. all of the above are not prohibited questions on an employment application
Question 6 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following laws would be enforced by the EEOC
A. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Title VII)
C. Title II of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
D. All of the above
Question 7 of 10
10.0 Points
Worker’s Compensation laws prescribe standards for wages and overtime pay, which affect all private and public employment.
A. True
B. False
Question 8 of 10
10.0 Points
The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) requires all employers to give up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible employees for the birth or adoption of a child or for the serious illness of the employee or a spouse, child or parent.
A. True
B. False
Question 9 of 10
10.0 Points
“The overriding goal of a business is to be profitable” is an assumption in which ethical framework:
A. Free Market Ethics
B. Utilitarianism
C. Deontology
D. Virtue Ethics
Question 10 of 10
10.0 Points
The ethical framework that assumes that people are deeply connected to one another in webs of relationships, and that ethical decisions cannot be made outside the context of those relationships is known as:
A. Free Market Ethics
B. Ethic of Care
C. Deontology
D. Virtue Ethics

Bus 508/Bus508 week 5 Chapter 7 Practice Quiz


Bus 508/Bus508 week 5 Chapter 7 Practice Quiz

 
Question 1
________ is the process of recognizing a problem or opportunity, evaluating alternative solutions, selecting and implementing an alternative, and assessing the results.
Answer
Strategic planning
SWOT analysis
Decision making
Critical thinking
Question 2
 The ________ links employees from different parts of the organization to work together on specific projects.
Answer
Committee organization
Matrix structure
Horizontal authority
Vertical authority
Question 3
 In the course of a typical day, managers spend time meeting and talking with people, reading, thinking, and sending text or e-mail messages.
Answer
True
False
Question 4
A ________ is a written explanation of an organization’s business intentions and aims.
Answer
Organization statement
Vision statement
Corporate statement
Mission statement
Question 5
 ________ involves implementing the activities specified by strategic plans.
Answer
Strategic planning
Tactical planning
Operational planning
Contingency planning
Question 6
 ________ is the process of dividing work activities into units within the organization.
Answer
Compartmentalization
Departmentalization
Decentralization
Operationalization
Question 7
 Strategic planning often makes the difference between an organization’s success and failure.
Answer
True
False
Question 8
 An important outgrowth of democratic leadership in business is the concept of ________, in which employees share authority, responsibility, and decision making with their managers.
Answer
Empowerment
Encouragement
Development
Sponsorship
Question 9
 A ________ is a structure that places authority and responsibility jointly in the hands of a group of individuals rather than a single manager.
Answer
Committee organization
Matrix structure
Horizontal authority   
Vertical authority
Question 10
 ________ at every level in the management hierarchy must exercise three basic types of skills: technical, human, and conceptual.
Answer
Managers
Planners
Operators
Directors
Question 11
Management principles and concepts apply to not-for-profit organizations as well as profit-seeking firms.
Answer
True
False
Question 12
The ethical tone that a top management team establishes cannot reap monetary as well as nonmonetary rewards.
Answer
True
False
Question 13
 An ________ is a structured group of people working together to achieve common goals.
Answer
Team
Culture
Organization
Management
Question 14
 Planning can be divided into the following categories, except:
Answer
Strategic
Complexity
Tactical
Operational
Question 15
A company that does not emphasize centralization retains decision making at the top of the management hierarchy.
True
False
Answer
Question 16
 Strategic planning often does not make the difference between an organization’s success and failure.
Answer
True
False
Question 17
 An organization’s ________ is its system of principles, beliefs, and values.
Answer
Business conditions
Corporate culture
Autocratic leadership
Operations
Question 18
 ________ is the process of achieving organizational objectives through people and other resources.
Answer
Leadership
Mentoring
Professionalism
Management
Question 19
A business begins with a ________, its founder’s perception of marketplace needs and the ways a firm can satisfy them.
Answer
Mission
Vision
Concept
Steps
Question 20
 ________ is guiding and motivating employees to accomplish organizational objectives.
Answer
Directing
Planning
Organizing
Controlling

STRAYER ACC560 WEEK 8 QUIZ CH 11 (2015 ) 100% ANSWER


STRAYER ACC560 WEEK 8 QUIZ CH 11 (2015 ) 100% ANSWER

Question
Multiple Choice Question 129
Dillon has a standard of 1.5 pounds of materials per unit, at $6 per pound. In producing 2,000 units, Dillon used 3,100 pounds of materials at a total cost of $18,135. Dillon’s materials price variance is
$1,050 F.
$135 U.
$465 F.
$600 F.
Multiple Choice Question 81
Scorpion Production Company planned to use 1 yard of plastic per unit budgeted at $81 a yard. However, the plastic actually cost $80 per yard. The company actually made 3,900 units, although it had planned to make only 3,300 units. Total yards used for production were 3,960. How much is the total materials variance?
$3,960 F
$48,600 U
$4,860 U
$900 U
Multiple Choice Question 51
Standard costs
may show past cost experience.
help establish expected future costs.
all of these.
are the budgeted cost per unit in the present.
Multiple Choice Question 68
Allowance for spoilage is part of the direct
labor price standard.
labor quantity standard.
materials price standard.
materials quantity standard.
Multiple Choice Question 99
A company uses 8,400 pounds of materials and exceeds the standard by 300 pounds. The quantity variance is $1,800 unfavorable. What is the standard price?
$2
$4
Cannot be determined from the data provided.
$6
Multiple Choice Question 152
The balanced scorecard approach
evaluates performance using about 10 different perspectives in order to effectively incorporate all areas of the organization.
uses rather vague, open statements when setting objectives in order to allow managers and employees flexibility.
normally sets the financial objectives first, and then sets the objectives in the other perspectives to accomplish the financial objectives.
uses only financial measures to evaluate performance.
Multiple Choice Question 78
Hofburg’s standard quantities for 1 unit of product include 2 pounds of materials and 1.5 labor hours. The standard rates are $2 per pound and $7 per hour. The standard overhead rate is $8 per direct labor hour. The total standard cost of Hofburg’s product is
$14.50.
$26.50.
$22.50.
$17.00.
Multiple Choice Question 54
If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, it should
set loose standards that are easy to fulfill.
not employ any standards.
set tight standards in order to motivate people.
offer wage incentives to those meeting standards.
Multiple Choice Question 56
Ideal standards
are rigorous but attainable.
reflect optimal performance under perfect operating conditions.
will always motivate employees to achieve the maximum output.
are the standards generally used in a master budget.
Multiple Choice Question 122
Shipp, Inc. manufactures a product requiring two pounds of direct material. During 2013, Shipp purchases 24,000 pounds of material for $99,200 when the standard price per pound is $4. During 2013, Shipp uses 22,000 pounds to make 12,000 products. The standard direct material cost per unit of finished product is
$8.00.
$8.53.
$8.27.
$9.01.
Multiple Choice Question 113
Monster Company produces a product requiring 3 direct labor hours at $16.00 per hour. During January, 2,000 products are produced using 6,300 direct labor hours. Monster’s actual payroll during January was $98,280. What is the labor quantity variance?
$2,520 F
$4,800 U
$4,800 F
$2,280 U
Multiple Choice Question 103
Edgar, Inc. has a materials price standard of $2.00 per pound. Six thousand pounds of materials were purchased at $2.20 a pound. The actual quantity of materials used was 6,000 pounds, although the standard quantity allowed for the output was 5,400 pounds.
Edgar, Inc.’s materials price variance is
$120 U.
$1,200 U.
$1,200 F.
$1,080 U.
Multiple Choice Question 105
Edgar, Inc. has a materials price standard of $2.00 per pound. Six thousand pounds of materials were purchased at $2.20 a pound. The actual quantity of materials used was 6,000 pounds, although the standard quantity allowed for the output was 5,400 pounds.
Edgar, Inc.’s total materials variance is
$2,400 F.
$2,520 U.
$2,520 F.
$2,400 U.
Multiple Choice Question 73
Oxnard Industries produces a product that requires 2.6 pounds of materials per unit. The allowance for waste and spoilage per unit is .3 pounds and .1 pounds, respectively. The purchase price is $2 per pound, but a 2% discount is usually taken. Freight costs are $.10 per pound, and receiving and handling costs are $.07 per pound. The hourly wage rate is $12.00 per hour, but a raise which will average $.30 will go into effect soon. Payroll taxes are $1.20 per hour, and fringe benefits average $2.40 per hour. Standard production time is 1 hour per unit, and the allowance for rest periods and setup is .2 hours and .1 hours, respectively. The standard direct labor rate per hour is
$15.90.
$15.60.
$12.30.
$12.00.
Multiple Choice Question 41
The difference between a budget and a standard is that
a budget expresses a total amount, while a standard expresses a unit amount.
a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be.
a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened.
standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system.

BUS475/BUS 475 Week-3 Final Exam (50 QUESTIONS) ALL ARE CORRECT


BUS475/BUS 475 Week-3 Final Exam (50 QUESTIONS) ALL ARE CORRECT

Question
Question-1 Communication is the process of
transferring information and meaning.
listening actively.
writing messages.
talking constantly.
Question-2: Business communication is often more demanding than social communication because communication on the job is affected by
politics.
the growing reliance on teamwork in business.
personalities.
desire to always advance and move up in an organization.
Question-3 What are the benefits of using IM in business communication?
Less personal
Low cost
Ability to exclude those unable to use IM
To maintain a quiet work environment
Question-4: What are the three major steps in the writing process?
Plan, Write, and Complete
Plan, Construct, and Complete
Prepare, Write, and Complete
Prepare, Construct, and Stop
Question-5: What way can you build credibility with an audience when planning a persuasive message?
Use simple language.
Use difficult language.
Use descriptive language.
Use hostile language.
Question-6: What type of data visual would you use to illustrate trends over time?
Gantt chart
Bar graph
Line chart
Scatter diagrams
Question-7: How do you keep the audience’s attention?
Use confusing language
Relate your subject to your audience’s needs
Talk about yourself
Offer a reward
Question-8: What does quality of hire mean?
A measure of how a new employee is hired
How good an employee is at getting hired
On a 1–10 scale, the hire is a 10
A measure of how closely new employees meet the company’s needs
Question-9 What is a subjective statement?
A statement involving a subject
A statement made true by someone thinking it is true
A statement that pertains to a chapter in a book
A statement that is fact
Question-10: An argument consists of two parts:
the fact and the rebuttal
the subject and the outcome
the premise and the conclusion
the point and the conclusion
Question-11: What are some rhetorical devices used in persuasive messages?
Syllogisms
Stereotypes
Memories
Biases
Question-12: __________ are part of the elements of creativity?
Domain skills
Thinking skills
Listening skills
Athletic skills
Question-13: Our most reliable source of information about the world is
our own observations.
cable news.
the Internet.
Facebook.
Question-14: The reliability of our observations is not better than the reliability of our ____________.
senses
family
memories
friends
Question-15: The following is an example of a moral value judgment:
As an actress, Paris Hilton has a nice clothes rack.
Keith Lewis must be a total flake.
The senator dresses well.
I don’t deserve to be flunked for an honest mistake.
Question-16: Utilitarianism is
an act that will produce more happiness than will alternatives, it is the right thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be wrong to do.
an act that will produce less happiness than will alternatives, it is the right thing to do, and if it will produce more happiness, it would be wrong to do.
an act that will produce more happiness than will alternatives, it is the wrong thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be right to do.
an act that will produce less happiness than will alternatives, it is the wrong thing to do, and if it will produce less happiness, it would be right to do.
Question-17: One of the principal roles of the Judiciary is
to provide the other branches of government with legal counsel.
to issue common law writs.
to issue injunctions and related orders.
to resolve disputes.
Question-18: Business ethics may be defined as
taking an expedient approach to any business situation
doing what is most advantageous for the business
a consciousness of what is right or wrong in the workplace
minimizing decisions having potentially adverse consequences for business stakeholders
Question- 19: “Fair use” is a defense to copyright infringement that
requires findings by a court.
is non-statutory.
is absolute.
is available in all countries.
Question-20: A valid contract must
be entirely in writing
be signed by all parties
use the title “Contract” at the top of the document
 
exist where all necessary legal elements for contract formation are present

Strayer ACC 206 Accounting Principles II Week 6 Quiz (71 Questions)


Strayer ACC 206 Accounting Principles II Week 6 Quiz (71 Questions)

TRUE-FALSE STATEMENTS
1. Dividends may be declared and paid in cash or stock.
True
False
2. Cash dividends are not a liability of the corporation until they are declared by the board of directors.
True
False
3. The amount of a cash dividend liability is recorded on the date of record because it is on that date that the persons or entities who will receive the dividend are identified.
True
False
4. A 10% stock dividend will increase the number of shares outstanding but the book value per share will decrease.
True
False
5. A 3 for 1 common stock split will increase total stockholders’ equity but reduce the par or stated value per share of common stock.
True
False
6. Retained earnings represents the amount of cash available for dividends.
True
False
7. Net income of a corporation should be closed to retained earnings and net losses should be closed to paid-in capital accounts.
True
False
8. A debit balance in the Retained Earnings account is identified as a deficit.
True
False
9. A correction in income of a prior period involves either a debit or credit to the Retained Earnings account.
True
False
10. Prior period adjustments to income are reported in the current year’s income statement.
True
False
11. Retained earnings that are restricted are unavailable for dividends.
True
False
12. Restricted retained earnings are available for preferred stock dividends but unavailable for common stock dividends.
True
False
13. A retained earnings statement shows the same information as a corporation income statement.
True
False
14. A detailed stockholders’ equity section in the balance sheet will list the names of individuals who are eligible to receive dividends on the date of record.
True
False
15. Common Stock Dividends Distributable is shown within the Paid-in Capital subdivision of the stockholders’ equity section of the balance sheet.
True
False
16. Return on common stockholders’ equity is computed by dividing net income by ending stockholders’ equity.
True
False
17. Many companies prepare a stockholders’ equity statement instead of presenting a detailed stockholders’ equity section in the balance sheet.
True
False
18. A major difference among corporations, proprietorships, and partnerships is that a corporation’s income statement reports income tax expense.
True
False
19. A corporation incurs income tax expense only if it pays dividends to stockholders.
True
False
20. Income tax expense usually appears as a separate section on a corporation income statement.
True
False
21. Earnings per share is calculated by dividing net income by the weighted average number of shares of preferred stock and common stock outstanding.
True
False
22. Preferred dividends paid are added back to net income in calculating earnings per share for common stockholders.
True
False
23. Earnings per share indicates the net income earned by each share of outstanding common stock.
True
False
24. Earnings per share is reported for both preferred and common stock.
True
False
25. Most companies are required to report earnings per share on the face of the income statement.
True
False
Additional True-False Questions
26. A dividend based on paid-in capital is termed a liquidating dividend.
True
False
27. Common Stock Dividends Distributable is reported as additional paid-in capital in the stockholders’ equity section.
True
False
28. A prior period adjustment is reported as an adjustment of the beginning balance of Retained Earnings.
True
False
29. Income tax expense and the related liability for income taxes payable are recorded when taxes are paid.
True
False
30. Earnings per share is reported only for common stock.
True
False
MULTIPLECHOICE QUESTIONS
31. Each of the following decreases retained earnings except a
a. cash dividend.
b. liquidating dividend.
c. stock dividend.
 
d. All of these decrease retained earnings.

MATH 104 MIDTERM


MATH 104 MIDTERM

1. A 99% confidence interval estimate can be interpreted to mean that
a. if all possible samples are taken and confidence interval estimates are developed, 99% of them would include the true population mean somewhere within their interval.
b. we have 99% confidence that we have selected a sample whose interval does include the population mean.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.
2. Which of the following is not true about the Student’s t distribution?
a. It has more area in the tails and less in the center than does the normal distribution.
b. It is used to construct confidence intervals for the population mean when the population standard deviation is known.
c. It is bell shaped and symmetrical.
d. As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution.
3. A confidence interval was used to estimate the proportion of statistics students that are females. A random sample of 72 statistics students generated the following 90% confidence interval: (0.438, 0.642). Based on the interval above, is the population proportion of females equal to 0.60?
a. No, and we are 90% sure of it.
b. No. The proportion is 54.17%.
c. Maybe. 0.60 is a believable value of the population proportion based on the information above.
d. Yes, and we are 90% sure of it.
4. A confidence interval was used to estimate the proportion of statistics students that are female. A random sample of 72 statistics students generated the following 90% confidence interval: (0.438, 0.642). Using the information above, what size sample would be necessary if we wanted to estimate the true proportion to within 0.08 using 95% confidence?
a. 105
b. 150
c. 420
d. 597
5. When determining the sample size necessary for estimating the true population mean, which factor is not considered when sampling with replacement?
a. The population size.
b. The population standard deviation.
c. The level of confidence desired in the estimate.
d. The allowable or tolerable sampling error.
6. An economist is interested in studying the incomes of consumers in a particular region. The population standard deviation is known to be $1,000. A random sample of 50 individuals resulted in an average income of $15,000. What is the upper end point in a 99% confidence interval for the average income?
a. $15,052
b. $15,141
c. $15,330
d. $15,364
7. An economist is interested in studying the incomes of consumers in a particular region. The population standard deviation is known to be $1,000. A random sample of 50 individuals resulted in an average income of $15,000. What sample size would the economist need to use for a 95% confidence interval if the width of the interval should not be more than
$100?
a. n = 1537
b. n = 385
c. n = 40
d. n = 20
8. The head librarian at the Library of Congress has asked her assistant for an interval estimate of the mean number of books checked out each day. The assistant provides the following interval estimate: from 740 to 920 books per day. If the head librarian knows that the population standard deviation is 150 books checked out per day, and she asked her assistant to use 25 days of data to construct the interval estimate, what confidence level can she attach to the interval estimate?
a. 99.7%
b. 99.0%
c. 98.0%
d. 95.4%
9. Which of the following would be an appropriate null hypothesis?
a. The population proportion is less than 0.65.
b. The sample proportion is less than 0.65.
c. The population proportion is no less than 0.65.
d. The sample proportion is no less than 0.65.
10. If we are performing a two-tailed test of whether = 100, the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 105 will be ________ the probability of detecting a shift of the mean to 110.
a. less than
b. greater than
c. equal to
d. not comparable to
11. Which of the following statements is not true about the level of significance in a hypothesis test?
a. The larger the level of significance, the more likely you are to reject the null hypothesis.
b. The level of significance is the maximum risk we are willing to accept in making a Type I error.
c. The significance level is also called the level.
d. The significance level is another name for Type II error.
12. A _________________ is a numerical quantity computed from the data of a sample and is used in reaching a decision on whether or not to reject the null hypothesis.
a. significance level
b. critical value
c. test statistic
d. parameter
TABLE 7-2
A student claims that he can correctly identify whether a person is a business major or an agriculture major by the way the person dresses. Suppose in actuality that he can correctly identify a business major 87% of
the time, while 16% of the time he mistakenly identifies an agriculture major as a business major. Presented with one person and asked to identify the major of this person (who is either a business or agriculture major), he
considers this to be a hypothesis test with the null hypothesis being that the person is a business major and the alternative that the person is an agriculture major.
13. Referring to Table 7-2, what would be a Type I error?
a. Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is a business major.
b. Saying that the person is a business major when in fact the person is an agriculture major.
c. Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is a business major.
d. Saying that the person is an agriculture major when in fact the person is an agriculture major.
TABLE 7-6
The quality control engineer for a furniture manufacturer is interested in the mean amount of force necessary to produce cracks in stressed oak furniture. The mean for unstressed furniture is 650 psi. She performs a two-tailed test of the null hypothesis that the mean for the stressed oak furniture is 650. The calculated value of the Z test statistic is a positive number that leads to a p value of 0.080 for the test.
14. Referring to Table 7-6, suppose the engineer had decided that the alternative hypothesis to test was that the mean was less than 650. What would be the p value of this one-tailed test?
a. 0.040
b. 0.160
c. 0.840
d. 0.960
15. The t test for the mean difference between 2 related populations assumes that the respective
a. sample sizes are equal.
b. sample variances are equal.
c. populations are approximately normal or sample sizes are large enough.
d. All of the above.
16. In testing for differences between the means of 2 related populations
the null hypothesis is:
a. H0: D = 2.
b. H0: D = 0.
c. H0: D < 0.
d. H0: D > 0.
17. To use the Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test as a test for location, we must assume that
a. the obtained data are either ranks or numerical measurements both within and between the 2 samples.
b. both samples are randomly and independently drawn from their respective populations.
c. both underlying populations from which the samples were drawn are equivalent in shape and dispersion.
d. All the above.
TABLE 8-4
A real estate company is interested in testing whether, on average, families in Gotham have been living in their current homes for less time than families in Metropolis have. A random sample of 100 families from Gotham and
a random sample of 150 families in Metropolis yield the following data on length of residence in current homes.
Gotham: G = 35 months, sG2 = 900 Metropolis: M = 50 months, sM2 = 1050
18. Referring to Table 8-4, what is(are) the critical value(s) of the relevant hypothesis test if the level of significance is 0.01?
a. t  Z = -1.96
b. t  Z = 1.96
c. t  Z = -2.080
d. t  Z = -2.33
19. Referring to Table 8-4, what is the standardized value of the estimate of the mean of the sampling distribution of the difference between sample means?
a. -8.75
b. -3.75
c. -2.33
d. -1.96
TABLE 8-5
To test the effects of a business school preparation course, eight (8) students took a general business test before and after the course. The results are given below.
Exam Score Exam Score
Student Before Course (1) After Course (2)
1 530 670
2 690 770
3 910 1000
4 700 710
5 450 550
6 820 870
7 820 770
8 630 610
20. Referring to Table 8-5, at the 0.05 level of significance, the decision for this hypothesis test would be:
a. reject the null hypothesis.
b. do not reject the null hypothesis.
c. reject the alternative hypothesis.
d. It cannot be determined from the information given.

MSSU GB0320/GB0320 final exam (37 QUESTIONS)


MSSU GB0320/GB0320 final exam (37 QUESTIONS)

Question 1
“Programs such as Microsoft PowerPoint and Adobe Presenter allow presenters to design ____, which can include sound, videos, and hyperlinks.
overhead transparencies
multimedia slides
videos
handouts
Question 2
“Informal reports are written in a style that uses
contractions.
third-person pronouns, such as the researcher and the writer.
passive-voice verbs.
All of these choices
Question 3
“Select the most accurate statement about proposals.
Most internal proposals are written in response to Requests for Proposals (RFPs).
Most proposals are unsolicited.
Proposals are legal contracts.
Most proposals are internal.
Question 4
“Informational reports should be organized using which of the following patterns?
Introduction/problem, facts/findings, conclusions/recommendations, discussion/analysis   
Introduction/problem, conclusions/recommendations, facts/findings, discussion/analysis
Introduction/background, facts/findings, summary/conclusion
Summary/conclusion, introduction/background, facts/findings
Question 5
“Formal proposals differ from informal proposals in
style.
size and format.
emotional and rational appeals.
persuasive techniques used.
Question 6
“The conclusions of a report
should be written using command language.
offer specific suggestions for actions that can solve a report problem.
should analyze information logically and show how the data answer questions and solve problems.
All of these choices
Question 7
Determine the mean of the numbers 30, 25, 25, 45, and 70.
195
25
30
39
Question 8
“The primary reason that management often requires trip, convention, and conference reports is to
get a thorough chronological list of everything that occurred during a trip, convention, or conference.      
determine whether the employee can be trusted to travel alone.
find out whether the organization’s money was well spent in funding the travel.
gather material for press releases.
Question 09
“You want to be prepared if you are asked about your salary expectations during a job interview. What should you do?
Do research before the interview so that you know what similar jobs are paying in your geographic region.
Determine what you would like to earn per hour so that you can give an exact dollar amount when asked.
Create a budget that details your personal expenses so that you can show the employer exactly how much you need to earn to cover your bills.
All of these choices
Question 10
“An effective résumé style for job hunters who are afraid of appearing overqualified is the
scannable résumé.
functional résumé.
chronological résumé.
online résumé.
Question 11
“A good introductory paragraph for a business report should
preview the main points and the order in which they will be developed.
tell the purpose of the report.
describe the significance of the report topic.
All of these choices    
Question 12
“The first step in writing a report is to
prepare a work plan.
implement your research strategy.
analyze the problem or assignment clearly.
compose the first draft.
Question 13
“Which of the following appears in the market analysis section of a business plan?
A discussion of barriers to entry
An overview of complementary products and services
A summary of the strengths and weaknesses of your direct and indirect competitors
All of these choices
Question 14
“Shondra will graduate from college soon and is beginning the job search process. What should she do first?
Research salary, benefits, and job stability in a chosen field
Develop an effective résumé to be sent to prospective employers
Locate a specific job opening at a desirable company
Identify her interests and goals and evaluate her qualifications
Question 15
“Much of the information that allows decision makers to run their organizations effectively comes to them in the form of
Web searches.
reports.
Wikipedia entries.
employees’ comments during meetings.
Question 16
Helpful previews, summaries, and transitions in an oral presentation are example of
conclusions.
criteria.
verbal signposts.
components.
Question 17
“An abstract included with a formal proposal is typically
one page long.
three to four pages long.
five to six pages long.
up to 10 percent of the original text.
Question 18
“Select the statement that best describes the summary of qualifications portion of a résumé.
Place the summary of qualifications at the bottom of your résumé to give it a strong ending.
A summary of qualifications makes your résumé easier to read.
Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the summary of qualification section because it adds to reading time.
Format the summary of qualifications section as one or two concise paragraphs.
Question 19
“What should you do after the interview?
Write a thank-you letter immediately.
Wait a few days to see if you hear from the employer; if not, write a thank-you letter.
Call the interviewer to thank him or her.
Send the interviewer flowers.
Question 20
“Because it quickly reveals a candidate’s education and experience most recruiters favor a(n)
scannable résumé.
functional résumé.
chronological résumé.
 
online résumé.

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

Inventory Analysis and Optimizing Staffing”

•Recommend a strategy for financial administrators to balance the tension between having inventory on hand when it is needed versus the carry cost to the organization. Provide support for your recommendation. •Assume that you are a health care administrator in a hospital, and you are responsible for staffing levels. Suggest an approach to staffing for 24/7 coverage that optimizes patient care, minimizes cost, and produces the highest level of employee satisfaction. Provide support for your rationale. Assignment 1: Financial Statement Analysis Due Week 4 and worth 200 points

Select one (1) of the following publically traded health care organizations: Universal Health Services (NYSE: UHS) or Health Management Associates (NYSE: HMA).

Suppose you are a newly appointed CFO of your chosen health care organization. One of your first tasks is to conduct an internal financial analysis of the organization. Conduct a brief financial analysis and review of the chosen company’s financial statements for at least three (3) consecutive years. After conducting the analysis, interpret the data contained within the statements.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

1.Based on your review of the financial statements, suggest a key insight about the financial health of the company. Speculate on the likely reaction to the financial statements from various stakeholder groups (employee, investors, shareholders). Provide support for your rationale. 2.Identify the current industry trend that has the most significant impact on your chosen organization’s financial performance. Indicate the trend’s impact on the financial performance of the organization. As the CFO, suggest at least one (1) way that you might minimize the impact of the trend on the organization. 3.As the CFO, suggest one (1) key strategy that you might use in order to improve the financial performance of the organization. Recommend an approach to implement the suggested strategy. Provide support for your recommendation. 4.Use at least four (4) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

•Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. •Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:


•Evaluate the financial statements and the financial position of health care institutions. •Analyze the role of important financial reporting statements – income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows – and explain how they relate to one another and to the underlying sources of data. •Use technology and information resources to research issues in health financial management. •Write clearly and concisely about health financial management using proper writing mechanics. Click here to view the grading rubric for this assignment.

HSA 525/HSA525 WK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS

Statistics Questions


Statistics Questions

Week 6 Assignment: Apply Repeated-Measures
Activity Description
You will submit one Word document for this activity. You will create this Word document by cutting and pasting SPSS output into Word.
This assignment consists of two parts. In the first part, you will utilize an existing dataset to analyze the dataset from repeated-measures experimental design. All SPSS output should be pasted into your Word document. In the second part, you will be asked to create a dataset for a hypothetical repeated-measures experimental design. Finally, you will answer questions about your hypothetical dataset.
Part A. SPSS Assignment
The “Activity 6.sav” file contains a dataset of a high school teacher interested in determining whether his students’ test scores increase over the course of a 12 week period. In the dataset, you will find the following variables:
Participant: unique identifier
Gender: Male (M) or Female (F)
Score_0 – score on the initial course pre-test (first day of class)
Score_2 – score at the end of week 2
Score_4 – score at the end of week 4
Score_6 – score at the end of week 6
Score_8 – score at the end of week 8
Score_10 – score at the end of week 10
Score_12 – score at the end of the course (week 12)
To complete this Activity 
1. Exploratory Data Analysis.
a. Perform exploratory data analysis on the relevant variables in the dataset. When possible, include appropriate graphs to help illustrate the dataset.
b. Compose a one to two paragraph write up of the data.
c. Create an APA style table that presents descriptive statistics for the sample.
2. Repeated-Measures ANOVA. Perform a repeated-measures ANOVA using the “Activity 6.sav” data set. You will use Score_0 through Score_12 as your repeated measure (7 levels), and gender as a fixed factor.
a. Is the assumption of sphericity violated? How can you tell? What does this mean in the context of interpreting the results?
b. Is there a main effect of gender? If so, explain the effect. Use post hoc tests when necessary or explain why they are not required in this specific case.
c. Is there a main effect time (i.e., an increase in scores from Week 0 to Week 12)? If so, explain the effect. Use post hoc tests when necessary or explain why they are not required in this specific case. Examine the output carefully and give as much detail as possible in your findings.
d. Write up the results in APA style and interpret them. Be sure that you discuss both main effects and the presence/absence of an interaction between the two.
Part B. Applying Analytical Strategies to an Area of Research Interest
3. Briefly restate your research area of interest.
a. Identify at least 2 variables for which you would utilize a repeated-measures ANOVA in your analysis. Describe the variables and their scale of measurement. Identify whether each factor is fixed or repeating. Where on the SPSS output would you look to find out if you violated the assumption of sphericity? If the data did violate this assumption, what would the impact be on your analysis?

Statistics Question


Statistics Question

Week 8 Assignment: Apply MANOVA and Prepare a Course Reflection
Activity Description
You will submit one Word document. You will create this Word document by cutting and pasting SPSS output into Word.
Part A. SPSS Assignment
In this exercise, you are playing the role of a researcher that is testing new medication designed to improve cholesterol levels. When examining cholesterol in clinical settings, we look at two numbers: low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL). You may have heard these called “good” (HDL) and “bad” (LDL) cholesterol. For LDL, lower numbers are better (below 100 is considered optimal). For HDL, 60 or higher is optimal.
In this experiment, you will be testing three different versions of the new medication. In data file “Activity 8.sav” you will find the following variables: group (0=control, 1=Drug A, 2=Drug B, 3=Drug C), LDL, and HDL (cholesterol numbers of participants after 12 weeks).
Using a MANOVA, try to ascertain which version of the drug (A, B or C) shows the most promise. Perform the following analyses and paste the SPSS output into your Word document.
 
  1. Exploratory Data Analysis.
    1. Perform exploratory data analysis on the relevant variables in the dataset. When possible, include appropriate graphs to help illustrate the dataset.
    2. Compose a one to two paragraph write up of the data.
    3. Create an APA style table that presents descriptive statistics for the sample.
  2. Perform a MANOVA. Using the “Activity 8.sav” data set, perform a MANOVA. “Group” is your fixed factor and LDL and HDL are your dependent variables. Be sure to include simple contrasts to distinguish between the drugs (group variable). In the same analysis, include descriptive statistics and parameter estimates. Finally, be certain to inform SPSS that you want a post-hoc test to help you determine which drug works best.
    1. Is there any statistically significant difference in how the drugs perform? If so, explain the effect. Use the post hoc tests as needed.
    2. Write up the results using APA style and interpret them.
Part B. Reflection
Reflect on your experience throughout the course and how you will use your new statistical skill set in the dissertation phase of your degree program. Include a brief assessment of what you have learned. In 2-3 paragraphs, cover the following:
  1. What were the three most important concepts you learned?
  2. How will the material in this course help you in your dissertation work?
  3. What would you like to have seen covered that wasn’t or what would you have liked more practice with?

Statistics Question


Statistics Question

Week 7 Assignment: Apply Non-Parametric Tests
Activity Description
You will submit one Word document. In the first part your assignment document, provide short answers to the following questions (250 words or less).
Part A. Questions about non-parametric procedures
  1. What are the most common reasons you would select a non-parametric test over the parametric alternative?
  2. Discuss the issue of statistical power in non-parametric tests (as compared to their parametric counterparts). Which type tends to be more powerful? Why?
  3. For each of the following parametric tests, identify the appropriate non-parametric counterpart:
    1. Dependent t test
    2. Independent samples t test
    3. Repeated measures ANOVA (one-variable)
    4. One-way ANOVA (independent)
    5. Pearson Correlation
Part B. SPSS Assignment
In this part of the assignment you will perform the non-parametric version of the tests you used in Week 4. In each case, assume that you opted to use the non-parametric equivalent rather than the parametric test. Using the relevant data files from Assignment #4, complete the following tests and paste your results into a Word document:
  1. The non-parametric version of the dependent t test (use the SPSS dataset from Assignment #4, Part A);
  2. The non-parametric version of the independent t test (use the SPSS dataset created in Assignment #4, Part B); and,
  3. The non-parametric version of the single factor ANOVA (use the SPSS dataset in Assignment #4, Part C).